CCNA : Networking Fundamental

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) is the field of networking certifications that are recognized internationally and is the initial foundation to get other levels of certification. CCNA graduates are able to install, configure, and operate LAN, WAN and Dial Access Services for small networks (under 100 PC) that works using the IP protocol, IGRP, Serial, Frame Relay, IP RIP, VLANs, RIP, Ethernet and Access Lists . For practitioners and professionals who want to get CCNA certificate, we will open classroom guidance and preparation for exams in a way to discuss exam questions with a discussion of theory and practice which are equipped with Cisco routers and Catalyst switches.

Class CCNA Exam Guide consists of 3 modules of matter: Networking Fundamentals, Switch & Router Fundamentals, WAN & Routing Technology. And for this period we will begin with the module material Networking Fundamentals. Classes are held face-to-face class of eLearning classes with the same material.

MATERIALS
1. Introduction to Computer Networking Concepts
2. The TCP / IP and OSI Networking Models
3. LAN Cabling, Standards, and topologies
4. Fundamentals of IP
5. Fundamentals of TCP and UDP

cisco answer chapter 8

1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
* backbone cable
horizontal cable
patch cable
work area cable2
In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
BNC
RJ-11
* RJ-45
Type F3
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
when connecting a router through the console port
when connecting one switch to another switch
* when connecting a host to a switch
when connecting a router to another router4
With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
* the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
5
Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
Presentation
Transport
Data Link
* Physical
6
An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
light injector
* OTDR
TDR
multimeter
7
XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)
* coax
Cat4 UTP
Cat5 UTP
* Cat6 UTP
STP
8
What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
* Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
9
What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
goodput
* frequency
amplitude
* throughput
crosstalk
**bandwidth
10
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
coax cable
rollover cable
* crossover cable
straight-through cable

11
In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
coax
* fiber
Cat5e UTP
Cat6 UTP
STP
12
Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?



*


13
Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
electrical
optical
* wireless
acoustic
14
Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
* It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
* It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
15
Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
* generally uses LEDs as the light source
relatively larger core with multiple light paths
less expensive than multimode
generally uses lasers as the light source
16
What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
* more host mobility
lower security risks
reduced susceptibility to interference
less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
17
What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
the metal braiding in the shielding
the reflective cladding around core
* the twisting of the wires in the cable
the insulating material in the outer jacket
18
What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
* create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
provide physical addressing to the devices
determine the path packets take through the network
control data access to the media

(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)

cisco answer chapter 7

1
Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
* non-deterministic
* less overhead
one station transmits at a time
* collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing2
What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
provide routes across the internetwork
format the data for presentation to the user
* facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
identify the services to which transported data is associated3
Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
* 2
4
84
What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
* Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.5

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
* 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af6
What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
* They are 48 binary bits in length.
They are considered physical addresses.
* They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
They are used to determine the data path through the network.
* They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

7

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
source MAC - PC
source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
* source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
* source IP - PC
source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

8
What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
* media sharing
application processes
* logical topology
intermediary device function

9
What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
* is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

10
What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
* Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
* Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

11
Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
* Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
* Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

12
Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
LLC
* MAC
HDLC
NIC

13
What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
* Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
* defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
* Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

14
What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
* The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

15
What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
The default gateway address should not be changed.
* The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
* The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

16
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides the formatting of data
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
* provides for the exchange data over a common local media

17
Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
* the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
* the physical layer implementation
* the number of hosts to be interconnected

18
What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
define the logical topology
provide media access control
* support frame error detection
carry routing information for the frame

19
A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
* physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology

20

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
* Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com) 

cisco answer chapter 6

1
How many bits make up an IPv4 address?128
64
48
* 32
2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?255.255.255.248
255.255.255.224
* 255.255.255.192
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.2523
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
* IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

4
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

/24
/16
/20
* /27
/25
/28

5
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

The router has an incorrect gateway.
Host A has an overlapping network address.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
* NAT is required for the host A network.

6
What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

255.255.0.0
* 255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.248.0

7
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
* This is a network address.
This is not a valid address.

8
What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

identifies an individual device
is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
* is altered as packet is forwarded
* varies in length
* is used to forward packets
uses flat addressing

9
What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
* 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000

10
A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.0.0
172.16.192.0
172.16.192.128
* 172.16.192.160
172.16.192.168
172.16.192.176

11
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

* The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
The default gateway device is not operating.
A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.

12
What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

The router will discard the packet.
The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
* The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
* The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.

13
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is designing security rules for the 192.168.22.0 /24 network. Each security rule requires an address and mask pair to represent the machines that will be affected by the rule. Which two address and mask pairs will be the most precise way to reference the servers and hosts separately. (Choose two.)

192.168.22.40 255.255.255.248
192.168.22.40 255.255.255.252
192.168.22.100 255.255.255.128
* 192.168.22.100 255.255.255.254
* 192.168.22.1 255.255.255.192
192.168.22.101 255.255.255.224

14
Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

* larger address space
faster routing protocols
* data types and classes of service
* authentication and encryption
improved host naming conventions
same addressing scheme as IPv4

15
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

binary adding
hexadecimal anding
binary division
binary multiplication
* binary ANDing

16
What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

security
header format simplification
* expanded addressing capabilities
addressing simplification

17
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

172.168.33.1
* 10.35.66.70
* 192.168.99.5
* 172.18.88.90
192.33.55.89
172.35.16.5

18
Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
* Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
* IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

19
Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

172.16.4.127 /26
* 172.16.4.155 /26
* 172.16.4.193 /26
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.159 /27
* 172.16.4.207 /27

20
What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

an internet
* a network
an octet
* a radi

21
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

22
Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

LAN workstations
* servers
* network printers
* routers
remote workstations
laptops

(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)

cisco answer chapter 5

1
In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
* destination network address
source network address
source MAC address
well known port destination address

2
What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
*source and destination IP address

3
In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
* The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.

4
Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
type-of-service
identification
flags
* time-to-live
header checksum

5
Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
host portion
broadcast address
* network portion
gateway address

6

Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
192.135.250.1
192.31.7.1
192.133.219.0
* 192.133.219.1

7
If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
* The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

8
What is the purpose of a default gateway?
physically connects a computer to a network
provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
* identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9
What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
dynamic
interior
* static
standard

10
When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
* The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
The router discards the packet.
The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
*The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11 What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
* gateways
purpose
physical addressing
software version
* geographic location
* ownership

12
What is a component of a routing table entry?
the MAC address of the interface of the router
the destination Layer 4 port number
the destination host address
*the next-hop address

13
Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
* router
hub
switch
* firewall
access point
bridge

14
What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
too few broadcasts
*performance degradation
* security issues
* limited management responsibility
host identification
protocol compatibility

15
Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
3
* 4
5
7
8
11

16
Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
* If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
* If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
* If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.

17
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
10.10.10.26
127.0.0.1
* 10.10.10.6
10.10.10.1
224.0.0.0

18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
* Replace S2 with a router.
Place all servers on S1.
Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
* Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.

19
Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
* 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
* 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20
What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
require no device configuration
* provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
require less processing power than static routes require
consume bandwidth to exchange route information
* prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table

21
What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
* A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

(Reference: noc-rikasang.blogspot.com)

cisco answer chapter 4

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16

3. What is a routing loop?
ans:
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
ans:
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
ans:
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

6. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
ans:
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

7. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
ans:
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

8. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
ans:
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
ans:
3

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
ans:
route poisoning

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
ans:
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

12. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

13. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
ans:
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

14. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
ans:
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

15. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
ans:
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

16. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

17. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

18. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
ans:
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

19. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
ans:
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

20. Which event will cause a triggered update?
ans:
a route is installed in the routing table 

reference  :http://answersforccna.blogspot.com

cisco answer chapter 3

1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route

4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3

8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
ans:
shortest-path first calculations

12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

17) What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance 

reference  : http://answersforccna.blogspot.com

cisco answer chapter 2

1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate

2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set

5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.

7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table

8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25

9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route

10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device

13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route

18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface

19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21

23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address. 

reference  :http://answersforccna.blogspot.com

cisco answer chapter 1

1. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
ans:
1
4

3. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
ans:
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

4. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
ans:
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

5. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
ans:
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

6. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
ans:
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

7. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
ans:
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
ans:
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

10. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
ans:
TFTP server
Flash memory

11. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
ans:
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

14. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ans:
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
ans:
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
ans:
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

17. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
ans:
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

18. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
ans:
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

19. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
ans:
the Layer 2 source and destination address

20. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
ans:
cross-over

21. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot. 

reference  :http://answersforccna.blogspot.com

CISCO LEARNING

CCNA is the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification from Cisco. In speech and in writing, this certification is properly referred to by the initials CCNA rather than the full name.

CCNA certification is a second-level Cisco Career certification. CCNA certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN.

To achieve CCNA certification, one must earn a passing score on Cisco exam #640-802, or combined passing scores on both the ICND1 #640-822 and ICND2 #640-816 exams. Passing the ICND1 grants one the Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician (CCENT). Passing scores are set by using statistical analysis and are subject to change. At the completion of the exam, candidates receive a score report along with a score breakout by exam section and the passing score for the given exam. Cisco does not publish exam passing scores because exam questions and passing scores are subject to change without notice.

The use of IP, EIGRP, Frame Relay, RIPv2, VLANs, Ethernet, and access control lists is all included within the curriculum. CISCO produce a breakdown of the CCNA topics on their website. The exams themslves include a mixture of question types including Multiple choice, drag and drop, Testlets and simulations.

reference  :www.wikipedia.com